[quote] name='Levi' timestamp='1313924432' post='74459']
One question for you on your commentary on the Gospel (or apparently 'gospels' according to your synopsis) TeeJay.[/quote]
Actually, Levi, it's not TeeJay's "synopsis." Galatians 2:7-9 is proof positive that there were two covenants in effect in the last half of the Book of Acts:
Ã¢â‚¬Å“But on the contrary, when they [circumcision apostles at Jerusalem Council] saw that the gospel for [OF] the uncircumcised had been committed to me [Paul], as the gospel for [OF] the circumcised was to Peter (for He who worked effectively in Peter for the apostleship to the circumcised also worked effectively in me toward the Gentiles), and when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the GRACE [GOSPEL] that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised.Ã¢â‚¬Â Gal. 2:7-9
Note: The KJV renders the passage in the most common manner, true to the usual function of the genitive case of these Greek nouns, Ã¢â‚¬Å“the gospel of the uncircumcision was committed unto me, as the gospel of the circumcision was to Peter.Ã¢â‚¬Â The KJV translates these nouns as expected as genitives of description (describing the Gospel that was committed to each). Unexpectedly, the NKJV translates them as though they were indirect object genitives. Even if this unlikely translation were correct, WHICH IT IS NOT, the point remains: there is the Gospel for the Body and the Gospel for Israel, the former based on grace, the latter on circumcision [law].
After the Cross
[quote]How could Paul be the first in the body of Christ if he started out by killing 'Christians'?[/quote]
Because until Paul, the Body of Christ did not exist. God was working with Israel, the "people of the circumcision." Circumcision is a synonym for law. When a Jewish male was circumcised on the eighth day, he automatically came under the Abrahamic Covenant of Circumcision or law. A female came under i when she was born to a Jewish father or married a Jewish man. A slave came under it when had a Jewish master. And a Gentile came under it when he became a proselyte Jew. So Paul could write, under the Gospel of Uncircumcision or grace: In the Body of Christ there is neither male or female, Jew or Gentile, slave or free. All can come boldly to the Throne of God, unlike the Jews who had to have "three or four gathered in His name.
[quote]wouldn't those Christians have been in the body before him? First the Jew and then the gentile according to my reading of the events in scripture.
To the Jews first were given special revelation and salvation. Jesus "came only to the House of Israel." Jesus plan was for Israel to be His evangelical nation to the world. In spite of Peter's preaching for Israel to repent so that God the Father would send Jesus back and they would have their kingdom, Israel rejected Jesus as their Messiah. So God the Father cut off Israel and commissioned Paul to bypass Israel and go directly to the Gentiles. But God gave Paul a completely different gospel--gospel of grace where there is no law or works required for salvation. Anything we do or not do is based on love for God and love for our neighbor. This type of relationship is what God had with Adam and Eve in the Garden. He has brought us full circle.
But the law is still serving it's intended purposes. It deters crime if applied swiftly and justly. And it convicts and points to Jesus. But once we accept Jesus Christ, we are not to use the law as a guide for righteous living for if we do, we are again partaking of the Tree of Knowledge. What replaces the law? God.
Cliché #1 - Thou Shalt Not Judge!
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